All India Bar Examination – XII Question and Answers
All India Bar Examination – XII
1. The First constitutional
amendment was enacted in
1 point
a) 1950
b) 1951
c) 1967
d) 1975
2. A person instigates any
person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts
1 point
a) Section 107 IPC
b) Section 120(B) of IPC
c) Section 114 of IPC
d)
Section 144 of IPC
3. A landmark Habeas Corpus
Petition was filed during emergency, that is
1 point
a) Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala
b) Golaknath V.s State of Punjab
c) MC Mehta V/s. Union of India
d) ADM
Jabalpur V/s. Shivkant Shukla
4. Examination in Chief is
conducted by the
1 point
a) Chief Examiner of the court
b) A lawyer appointed by the accused
c) A lawyer appointed by the government
d) Presiding judge in the court
e) None
of the above
5. The convention of Climate
Change was the outcome of
1 point
a) The Stockholm Conference
b) The Nairobi Conference
c) The Vienna Conference
d) The
Rio De Janeiro Conference
6. Who is a protected workman
1 point
a) Workman given police protection during labour strike
b) Workman protected by insurance coverage
c) Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union
in the establishment
d)
Workman protected from being arrested by a court order
7. A trade mark is a visual
symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles
from other. It is in the form of
1 point
a) A word
b) A device
c) A label
d) All
the above
8. The Indian Legal system has
evolved a new technique of alternate dispute resolution which is popularly
known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing
of
1 point
a) Legal Service Corporation Act, 1974
b) Legal aid and advice Act, 1949
c) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
d) None
9. Shah Bano case was related
to
1 point
a) Dowry demand
b) Harassment at work place
c) Maintenance of divorced Muslim women
d) Triple
divorce of Muslim Women
10. Who can move PIL in High
Court and Supreme Court,
1 point
a) Any public spirited person
b) NGO or Association with public spirit
c) Group of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest
d) All
the above
11. Doctrine of 'Pleasure'
applies to
1 point
a) Legislative
b) Civil servants
c) Judges
d)
Cabinet Ministers
12. Section 24 A of Advocates
Act 1961 provides the
1 point
a) Appointment of Attorney General
b) Regular attendance at Law College
c) Admitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll
d) Election to state Bar Council
e) None
of the above
13. Articles of a company can
be altered by
1 point
a) The directors of the company
b) The official of the company
c) Share holders by passing an ordinary
d) Share
holders by passing a special resolution
14. Article 361 provides
1 point
a) Authority to Union government to dismiss the state governments
b) Authority to the state governments to pass legislation
c) Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being
prosecuted in courts
d) None
of the above
15. Uttering of words with
deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with
1 point
a) Section 298 of IPC
b) Section 296 IPC
c) Section 297
d) None
of the above
16. Under Section 320(1),
Cr.P.C for criminal intimidation, with section of IPC is applicable
1 point
a) 503
b) 504
c) 505
d) 506
17. Which of the following is
an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism
1 point
a) Bar Council of India
b) Election Commission
c) Comptroller and Auditor General
d) Lok
Adalat
18. Which of the following is
not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor
1 point
a) Father
b) Brother
c) The executor appointed by father
d) Grand
father
19. Who is garnishee
1 point
a) A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender
money to settle a debt or claim
b) A borrower arrested for defaulting
c) A person who cannot repay a bank loan
d) A
person who mortgaged his farm land
20. Under section 18 of the
Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to
refer the matter to the court
1 point
a) The Tahsildar
b) The Sub Collector
c) The Deputy Collector
d) The
Collector
21. For Specific Performance
of a contract suit is to be instituted in
1 point
a) 3 years
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) No
specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract
22. Permanent Account Number
(PAN) is defined under
1 point
a) Wealth Tax
b) GST
c) Income Tax Act 1961
d)
Finance Act 1992
23. A marriage with a woman
before completion of her iddat is :
1 point
a) Irregular
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) None
of these
24. Section 10 of the CPC
provides for
1 point
a) Stay of the suit
b) Summoning witness
c) Examination of witness
d)
Sentencing the judgement
25. Who is prevented from
being testified u/s 118 of Indian Evidence Act
1 point
a) A lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him
b) Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
c) A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
d) All
the above
26. Supreme Court decided in
SR Bommai V/s. Union of India,
1 point
a) Relating to the President Rule in state
b) Relating to the illegal detention
c) Relating to the right to clean environment
d) None
of the above
27. Recovery of specific
immovable property is defined
1 point
a) Section of 5 of Specific Relief Act
b) Section 120 (B) of IPC
c) Under section 10 of Sale of goods Act
d) None
of the Above
28. Section 29 of the Wealth
Tax Act deals with
1 point
a) Revision petition in division bench of High Court
b) Appeal in Supreme Court
c) Return of Wealth Tax
d) None
of the above
29. The Collector shall under
the Land Acquisition Act 1894, give immediate ---- ---------------of any
correction made in the award to all the persons included
1 point
a) Approval
b) Stay
c) Announcement
d) Notice
30. Clerical or arithmetical
mistakes in judgements, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected
1 point
a) Under Section 151 of CPC
b) Under Section 152 of CPC
c) Under Section 153 of CPC
d) Under
Section 153 A of CPC1
31. Any confessional statement
by the accused given to the Magistrate is
1 point
a) Admissible
b) Not admissible
c) Challengeable
d) None
of the above
32. Supreme court has decided
in Keshavanand Bharati V/s. State of Kerala, that
1 point
a) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution
b) Parliament cannot amend any provision of the constitution
c) Parliament can amend any provision of the constitution but not to alter
the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution
d) None
of the above
33. Under which of the following
sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused
without warrant?
1 point
a) Section 40
b) Section 41
c) Section 42
d)
Section 37
34. “A” is at work with a
hatchel: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no
want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an
offence. It is contained in
1 point
a) Section 80 of IPC
b) Section 84 of IPC
c) Section 81 of IPC
d)
Section 85 of IPC
35. Delhi Domestic Working
Women Forum v/s. Union Of India (1995) 1 SC 14, In this PIL which issue was
exposed before the court,
1 point
a) The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army
men
b) Abolition of child labour
c) Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
d) Poor
salary of maid servants
36. Which chapter of Cyber Law
provides the legal Recognition to Digital Signature
1 point
a) Chapter III
b) Chapter IV
c) Chapter IX
d)
Chapter IX and X
37. The FIR gives information
of
1 point
a) Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a police officer
b) Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal
case
c) The commission of a cognizable crime
d) None
of the above
38. Definition of complainant
is described in Consumer Protection Act under section
1 point
a) Section 2(1)(b)
b) Section 20
c) Section 21
d) None
of the above
39. Which of the following
deals with plaint in interpleader -suits in the code of civil procedure?
1 point
a) Order 12, Rule 1
b) Order 17, Rule 10
c) Order 33, Rule 18
d) Order
35 Rule 1
40. Which is not the Private
Right
1 point
a) Rights of property
b) Right of freedom
c) Rights to Education
d) All
the above
41. Which one of the following
is true of summons under Section 61 Cr.P.C?
1 point
a) It is milder form of process
b) It is for appearance
c) It is for producing documents or thing
d) All of
them
42. The Kashmira Singh Vs.
State of Punjab is a leading case on
1 point
a) Dying Declaration
b) Admission
c) Confession
d) None
of the above
43. What is main objective of
Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act
1 point
a) Recovery of stolen property
b) Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
c) Recovery of the cheque amount in case cheque issued by the payer is bounced
d) None
of the above
44. Part III of Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes
1 point
a) Process of Conciliation
b) Process of Arbitration
c) Enforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
d) All of
the above
45. Separation of judiciary
from Executive is guaranteed in constitution under Article
1 point
a) 19
b) 21
c) 48-A
d) 50
46. In-camera trial is
conducted in the cases charged under section
1 point
a) 302 IPC
b) 307 IPC
c) 376 IPC
d) 498 -A
-IPC
47. The Family courts have
concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the
Indian Divorce Act: In which case the order was passed:
1 point
a) Handa v/s. Handa (AIR 1955)
b) Dr. Mary V/s. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
c) Peter V/s. Anglina (AIR 1992)
d) None
of the above
48. Punishment for Advocates
for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act 1961 by
1 point
a) Section 25
b) Section 33
c) Section 35
d) None
of the above
49. Which one is a case of
public interest
1 point
a) Vishaka V/s State of Rajasthan
b) Minerva Mills V/s. Union of India AIR 1980
c) Municipal Council, Ratlam V.s. Vardichand AIR 1980
d) All the above
None of
these
50. Under section 239 Cr.PC,
the Magistrate can
1 point
a) Frame charges against the accused person
b) Discharge the accused if charges are groundless.
c) Open trial for evidence
d)
Convict the accused if pleaded guilty
51. Article 213 empowers the
Governor to promulgate ordinances
1 point
a) When the state legislature is not in session
b) During the course of legislature session
c) On the recommendation of the state cabinet
d) With
the permission of the union government
52. A person arrested should
not be detained more than
1 point
a) 48 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 14 days
d) 90
days
53. Who of the following
Muslim is not entitled to maintenance
1 point
a) Son who is a minor
b) Daughter who is not married
c) Grand parents
d) An
Illegitimate son
54. In civil cases Indian
Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on
1 point
a) The Petitioner
b) The respondents
c) The state government
d) The
Court
55. In which of the following
of Section 59 Cr. P. C the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer
can take place?
1 point
a) On his own bond
b) On bail
c) Under special order of the Magistrate
d) All of
them
56. Financial Relations
between the state and centre are defined in constitution
1 point
a) Between Article 245-255
b) Between Article 256 -263
c) Between 264 to 293
d) None
of the above
57. Mahatma Gandhiji was
jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s 124(A) of IPC
for
1 point
a) Calling Hartal
b) Breaching public peace and tranquillity
c) Sedition and disaffection to the government
d) None
of the above
58. Police can seek a bond for
good behaviour u/s. 109 and 110 of Cr.PC from
1 point
a) Habitual offenders
b) White collar criminals
c) Jail inmates
d) None
of the above
59. Dayabhaga school Presumes
that "a family because it is joint possesses joint property"
1 point
a) This statement is correct
b) This presumption is under Mitakshara school
c) This statement is incorrect
d) None
of these
60. Meaning of Industrial
Dispute according to the Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is
1 point
a) Dispute between employers and employers
b) Dispute between employers and workman
c) Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and
non-employment
d) All
the above
61. English case Ryland V/s.
Fletcher laid down a very important rule
1 point
a) Absolute Liability
b) Vicarious liability
c) Indirect liability
d) Financial liability
None of
these
62. Which of the following is
not an essential for a valid sale:
1 point
a) The parties must be competent to contract
b) There must be mental consent
c) There must be a transfer of property
d) There
must be an agreement to sell
63. "Custodial death is
perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of
Law”. In which case supreme court made this remark,
1 point
a) A.K. Gopalan V/s. State of Madras
b) M.C. Mehta V/s. Union of India
c) D.K. Basu V/s. State of Bengal
d)
Visakha V/s. State of Rajasthan
64. A suit for compensation
for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is
1 point
a) 3 year's from the date of sentencing the judgement
b) 3 year's from the date of release from imprisonment
c) 3 year's from the date of commencing the imprisonment
d) 1 year
when the imprisonment ends
65. Rule of Law is defined by
1 point
a) Jeremy Bentham
b) Sir John Salmond
c) A.Y.Diecy
d) Prof.
Aristotle
66. What is the time
prescribed for filing an FIR
1 point
a) Within 24 hours
b) Within 48 hours
c) Within 14 days of the offence
d) No
time limit is specified
67. Which of the following is
true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
1 point
a) They are a special law within Section 4 of the code of civil procedure
b) They must take precedence over Section. 114 or Order. 47
c) Both (A) and (B)
d) None
of these
68. An Appeal Against Order
Passed under Section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National
Commission lies in
1 point
a) The High Court
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Central Government
d) Not
Appealable
69. Which is the body that
award punishments to the advocates for misconduct
1 point
a) Ethics Committee
b) Professional Development Committee
c) Disciplinary Committee
d) High
Court
70. Which section of Sale of
Goods Act 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract
1 point
a) Section 50
b) Section 65
c) Section 60
d)
Section 70
71. Criminal proceedings
against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright act by invoking the
provisions
1 point
a) Section 13-16
b) Section 17-27
c) Section 63-70
d) None
of the above
72. Which section of Indian
Registration Act 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of
Gifts and Immovable Properties
1 point
a) Section 11
b) Section 13
c) Section 17
d) None
of the above
73. State government's power
to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicle Act 1988 Under
section,
1 point
a) 67 of MV Act 1988
b) 68 of MV Act 1988
c) 69 of MV Act 1988
d) None
of the above
74. Doctrine of “LIS PENDENS”
is given under which section of the transfer of property Act
1 point
a) 41
b) 52
c) 53
d) 53A
75. Which of the following
statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?
1 point
a) It is a true law
b) It has vertical structure
c) It has well established institutes of governance
d) It has
formal law enforcing agencies
76. Deferred mahr is payable
at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse.
1 point
a) This statement is true under Sunni law.
b) This statement is not true.
c) Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce.
d)
Deferred is mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse.
77. Dying declaration must be
made by
1 point
a) The dying person in hospital
b) The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
c) The deceased before death
d)
Nearest relative of the deceased
79. Which of the following
deals with the evidence for prosecution
1 point
a) Section 242 Cr.P.C
b) Section 264 Cr.P.C
c) Section 237 Cr.P.C
d)
Section 235 Cr.P.C
78. Judgement should be delivered
to the parties or to their pleaders in the open court
1 point
a) By delivering the whole of the judgement
b) By reading out the whole of the judgement
c) By reading out the operative part of the judgement
d) All of
the above
80. Abetting the Commission of
suicide is given under
1 point
a) Section 9 of IPC
b) Section 8 of IPC
c) Section 7 of IPC
d) None
of the above
81. Control over sub ordinate
courts shall be vested in the
1 point
a) High Court
b) Supreme Court
c) Chief Minister
d)
Governor
82. Section 34 of the CPC
provides
1 point
a) The Payment of fine imposed by the court
b) Payment of compensation to the other party
c) Payment of interest
d) None
of the above
83. Any question suggesting
the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called :
1 point
a) Coercive question
b) Confusing question
c) Misleading question
d) Rhetoric Question
None of
these
84. According to clauses (i),
(ii) and (iii) of section 145 of the code of civil Procedure a surety:
1 point
a) May render himself personally liable
b) He may only give a change upon his property
c) He may
undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
d) All of
these
85. Section 49 of Factories
Act 1947 explains about
1 point
a) Canteen
b) Creche
c) Welfare officer
d) Rest
room
86. The word "case"
used in Section. 115 of the code of civil Procedure is of wide import and
1 point
a) It means any state of facts juridically considered
b) It includes civil proceeding other suits and is not restricted to
anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceeding in a civil
court
c) Both (A) and (B)
d) None
of these
87. “A” finds a purse with
money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs
to “B” and appropriates to his own use."A" is guilty of
1 point
a) Criminal breach of trust
b) Cheating
c) Criminal misappropriation
d) Theft
88. The word “is not possessed
of sufficient means “in Order 33 Rule 1 refer :
1 point
a) To dower debt due by the petitioner's husband
b) To property over which petitioner has actual control
c) To sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
d) None
of these
89. Section 22 B of Legal
Services Authority Act empower the central and state Authorities to
1 point
a) Abolish Lok Adalat
b) Works of Lok Adalat
c) Powers of Lok Adalat or permanent Lok Adalat
d) None
of the above
90. Indian Evidence Act was
enacted in
1 point
a) 1972
b) 1872
c) 1955
d) 1986
91. Which is the correct state
statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer
1 point
a) Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
b) An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal
or improper means
c) An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
d) All of
the above
92. Droite Administration is a
system of administration
1 point
a) French system
b) British system
c) American System
d) Irish
System
93. Which Act is covering the
Cyber crimes
1 point
a) Indian Telecommunication Act
b) Indian Penal Code
c) Indian Evidence Act
d)
Information Technology Act
94. In the tort of conspiracy,
the purpose of combination must be to
1 point
a) Violate legal right of the victim
b) Cause damage to the victim
c) Obtain benefit for the combiners
d)
Perfect the interest of combiners
95. Cancellation of instrument
is mentioned in
1 point
a) Section 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
b) Section of 26 of Specific Relief Act
c) Section 31-33 of specific Relief Act
d)
Sections 36-42 of Specific Relief Act
96. Unfair labour practice by
the employers
1 point
a) Victimization
b) False implication in criminal case
c) Untrue allegations of absence without leave
d) All
the above
97. The Costal Regulation Zone
Notification was issued by the Central Government in
1 point
a) 1986
b) 1988
c) 1991
d) 1997
98. Who is lawful guardian
1 point
a) A person who in law represents the Minor:
b) A person who has been appointed by the court
c) A person who has been authorised to represent an unmarried daughter
d) All
the above
99. Under the Companies Act
every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least
1 point
a) 100 shares
b) 20 shares
c) 10 shares
d) 1
share
100. GST came into force from
1 point
a) 1st January 2017
b) 1st April 2017
c) 1st July 2017
d) 1 th
August 2017
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