All India Bar Examination - XI Question and Answers
All India Bar Examination - XI
1. Section 154 under IT Act is
1 point
a) For filing return of Income
b) For filing return with late fee
c) Rectification of mistakes
d) Appeal
against the order passed by the ITO
2. Which of the following is
not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax Act
1 point
a) Any stock in Trade
b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
c) (a) and (b)
d) None
of the above
3. The language which is to be
used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by
1 point
a) The Tribunal
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
c) The petitioner
d) The
Defendant
4. The Arbitral proceeding
shall stand terminated
1 point
a) On making of the final award
b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
d) All of
the above
5. Every Award of a Lok Adalat
is deemed to be
1 point
a) Order of district collector
b) Order of Income Tax commissioner
c) Decree of a civil court
d) (a)
and (b)
6. The Arbitration and
Conciliation Act 1996, Section 18-27 states
1 point
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
b) Receipt and Written Communications
c) Extent of judicial intervention
d)
Awarding final decision
7. Provision of Section 80 of
CPC is binding on
1 point
a) The High Court
b) The court of civil judge
c) The district judge
d) All of
the above
8. Temporary Injunction can be
granted
1 point
a) Suo moto
b) Ex parte
c) Hearing both parties
d) None
of the above
9. Right to Appeal is a
1 point
a) Natural Right
b) Inherent right
c) Statutory right
d)
Delegated right
10. The last amendment to the
Indian Succession Act was made in
1 point
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2004
11. Which is the correct
statement:
1 point
a) There can be a will without a codicil
b) There can be a codicil without a will
c) Every will has a codicil
d) A
codicil proceeds a will
12. As per Section 63 of
Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by
1 point
a) By two witnesses
b) By two or more witnesses
c) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
d) None
of the above
13. 'Iddat' under Mohammadan
law refers to
1 point
a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
c) Attaining of puberty
d) None
of the above
14. Under the Christian
Marriage Act the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by
1 point
a) State government
b) The central government
c) The Clergyman of the Church
d) High
Court judges
15. The word 'Ombudsman' is
derived from
1 point
a) French administration
b) British Administration
c) Swedish Administration
d) German
Administration
16. Under Section 3 of the
Commission of Inquiry Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
1 point
a) Central government or State government
b) Union Public Service Commission
c) State Public commission
d)
Supreme Court of India
17. Information Technology Act
was enacted in
1 point
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 2004
18. Government of India passed
Information Technology Act in 2000 with objective
1 point
a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
b) to facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the government
c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber
crimes
d) All of
the above
19. Right to Personal liberty
includes
1 point
a) Right against custodial violence
b) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted
c) Right against Public hanging
d) All of
the above
20. The Supreme Commander of
the Defence Force of India is
1 point
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) The Defence Minister
d) Chief
Marshal
21. Retirement age of Supreme
Court Judges is
1 point
a) 62 years
b) 60 years
c) 58 years
d) 65
years
22. Criminal Procedure Code is
a subject of
1 point
a) Concurrent list
b) State list
c) Union list
d) None
of the above
23. Bailable and Non-Bailable
offence has been defined in
1 point
a) Section 2 (a) of Cr.P.C.
b) Section 2 (b) of Cr.P.C.
c) Section 2 (c) of Cr.P.C.
d)
Section 20 of IPC
24. Under Section 21 of
Cr.P.C. Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by
1 point
a) Central Government
b) High court
c) Supreme Court
d) State
Government
25. Police may carry out
personal search on an arrested person
1 point
a) U/s 49 Cr.P.C.
b) U/s. 50 Cr.P.C.
c) U/s. 51 Cr.P.C.
d) U/s.
52 Cr.P.C.
26. The Special Court is
1 point
a) Not subordinate to High Court
b) Superior to High Court
c) Supplement to High Court
d) Equal
to Supreme court
27. The powers under Section
159 of Cr.PC can be exercised by a magistrate
1 point
a) When the police decides not to investigate the case
b) When the investigation is still going on
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
of the above
28. Statement recorded during
investigation U/S. 161 can be used in trial
1 point
a) For contradicting the witness
b) For corroborating the witness
c) Incorporating in the charge sheet
d)
Discharging the accused
29. Power of taking cognizance
of offence by a Magistrate of First class or second class is provided
1 point
a) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
d) None of
the above
30. Additions or alteration of
charges is provided in Cr. PC
1 point
a) U/s. 214
b) U/s. 215
c) U/s. 216
d)
U/s.210
31. Which Section of Specific
Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the government?
1 point
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d)
Section 8
32. The Patent Act became a
law in
1 point
a) 1970
b) 1975
c) 1996
d) 1966
33. Cheque bouncing cases
charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
1 point
a) Bank Tribunal
b) Consumer Forum
c) Magistrate Court
d) Sessions
court
34. The provision of
establishing Public Service Commission is made under
1 point
a) Article 310
b) Article 315
c) Article 320
d)
Article 325
35. The case Krishna Gopal V/s
State of MP relates
1 point
a) Water pollution
b) Air and water pollution
c) Noise and air pollution
d) Water
and noise pollution
36. What is the punishment for
advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation?
1 point
a) Impose a fine
b) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
c) Suspension from practice
d) All of
the above
37. On being aggrieved by the
order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to
1 point
a) High Court
b) Supreme court
c) Bar Council of India
d) Indian
Law Commission
38. Which Section of Advocates
Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates
1 point
a) Section 29
b) Section 35
c) Section 37
d) All of
the above
39. Section 24 of Advocate Act
deals with
1 point
a) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the Bar
b) Qualification to become the Advocate General
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
d) (b)
and (c)
40. Under the Workmen's
Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for
compensation
1 point
a) Insurance certificate
b) Medical examination
c) Medical Certificate
d) (b)
and (c)
41. Section 23 of Workmen
Compensation Act 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of
1 point
a) A court
b) A Tribunal
c) A quasi judicial form
d) All of
the above
42. The objective of the
Industrial Dispute Act 1947 is
1 point
a) Industrial peace and economic justice
b) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) All of
the above
43. Section 2 (a) of
Industrial Dispute Act 1947 provides the definition of
1 point
a) Lock out
b) Lay off
c) Strike
d) Hartal
45. Under the Land Acquisition
Act, the arable land means
1 point
a) Useful for residential purpose
b) Useful for commercial purpose
c) Useful for cultivation
d) Useful
for industrial purpose
44. The Land Acquisition Act
came into force from
1 point
a) 1st March 1955
b) 1st March 1986
c) 1st March 1994
d) 1
March 1894
46. Which one is not a
fundamental right?
1 point
a) Right to Freedom of Assembly
b) Right to Property
c) Right to equality
d) Right
to freedom of speech and Expression
47. In Maneka Gandhi case it
was observed that
1 point
a) Confiscation of Passport was correct
b) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19 (1) (A) but the
confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law
d) None
of the above
48. Reasonable restrictions
can be imposed on the right of free movement
1 point
a) In the interest of general public
b) In the interest of political leaders
c) In the interest of women's safety
d) All of
the above
49. Which of the following can
claim Article 19 of constitution?
1 point
a) A company
b) A corporation
c) Only citizens
d)
Citizens and aliens
50. Clause (3) of Article 20
(i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled
to be
1 point
a) An accused
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself
d)
Hostile witness
51. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of
India is popularly known as
1 point
a) Judges Transfer Case
b) Illegal Detention case
c) Mandal Commission case
d)
Constitutional case
52. Due to the outcome of this
case slum dwellers were benefitted
1 point
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
b) Olga Tellis v/s Bombay Municipal Corporation
c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
d) Ratlam
Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
53. A Public Interest
Litigation can be filed under
1 point
a) Article 226 of constitution and Article 32 of the constitution
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
c) (a) and (b)
d) None
of the above
54. Supreme Court in SP Gupta
V/s. Union of India AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
1 point
a) Free Legal Aid
b) Bonded labours
c) Judges Transfer
d)
Illegal detention
55. Supreme court in a PIL
known as Kamal Nath case evolved,
1 point
a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
b) Public Trust doctrine
c) Separation of power doctrine
d) Public
Interest doctrine
56. Vishakha v/s. State of
Rajasthan case is related
1 point
a) Sexual harassment at workplace
b) Protection of civil rights
c) Uniform civil code
d) None
of the above
57. Court's power to award
compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act
1 point
a) Under Section 20
b) Under Section 21
c) (a) and (b)
d) None
of the above
58. Proving of hand writing is
provided in Indian Evidence Act
1 point
a) By the opinion of Experts
b) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification
d) (a)
and (b)
59. Section 26 of Indian
Evidence Act provides
1 point
a) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
b) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
c) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
d) (a)
and (c)
60. The term 'Evidence' means
and includes
1 point
a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence
c) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the court
d) All of
the above
61. Which is the authority
that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given
State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC
1 point
a) State government
b) Central government
c) Supreme Court of India
d) Both
(a) and (b)
62. A decree can be
1 point
a) Final
b) Preliminary
c) Only Preliminary not final
d) Either
preliminary or final
63. Foreign Judgement is
defined in CPC
1 point
a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
d) None
of the above
64. The Minimum number of
persons required to incorporate a Public Company is
1 point
a) 5
b) 10
c) 7
d)2
65. A Private company can
commence business as soon as it receives
1 point
a) Certification of incorporation
b) Letter of intent
c) Occupation certificate
d) None
of the above
66. Which of the following is
not an essential of a contract of guarantee
1 point
a) Concurrence of three parties
b) Surety's distinct promise to be answerable
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
d)
Existence of only one contract
67. The term 'Agent' is
defined in Indian Contract Act under Section
1 point
a) 180 of the Act
b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act
d) 183 of
the Act
68. What is the maximum number
of partners in Banking business
1 point
a) Eight
b) Ten
c) Twelve
d)
Sixteen
69. A person who gives the
guarantee is called
1 point
a) Bailee
b) Creditor
c) Debtor
d) Surety
70. Which is not a right of an
unpaid seller against the goods
1 point
a) Lien
b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale
d) To
ascertain price
71. Sections 36 to 42 of
Specific Relief Act provides
1 point
a) Injunctions
b) Court's discretion on specific performance
c) Cancellation of instruments
d) None
of the above
72. Which of the following is
not of civil nature
1 point
a) Right to take out procession
b) Right to Worship in a temple
c) Right to Caste and Religion
d) All of
the above
73. In a suit where the
doctrine of res judicata applies
1 point
a) The suit is liable to be dismissed
b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
of the above
74. Under Section16 CPC a suit
relating to immovable property can be filed in a court whose local jurisdiction
is
1 point
a) Where the property is situated
b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of
the above
75. Pleading means
1 point
a) Plaint and written statement
b) Plaint only
c) Written statement
d) Oral
statement by the pleader
76. On failure to file a
written statement, under order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the court may
1 point
a) pass any other order
b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once
d) Any of
the above
77. What is meant by Homicide?
1 point
a) Suicide by human being not at home
b) Suicide at home
c) Killing of a human being by another human being
d)
Killing of human being by animal
78. Adulteration of food or
drink is a punishable offence
1 point
a) Under Section 274-276 of IPC
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
c) Under Section 272-273 of IPC
d) None
of the above
79. Maximum punishment for waging
a war against the Government of India under IPC is
1 point
a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
d) Death
sentence
80. Offences relating to
elections are
1 point
a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
c) Are not covered by IPC
d) None
of the above
81. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill,
is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
1 point
a) Wrongful restraint
b) Wrongful confinement
c) Outrage the modesty of a women
d)
Maintenance to the divorced women
82. Under the Hindu Adoptions
and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption
1 point
a) Must be a Hindu only
b) A Hindu or Jew
c) May be Hindu or Christian
d) None
of the above
83. Polygamy was permitted for
Hindus before the year
1 point
a) 1956
b) 1954
c) 1955
d) 1978
84. Mohan gets married to his
sister's daughter Kriti
1 point
a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
b) The marriage is void
c) The marriage is valid only if the court approves it
d) The
marriage is valid only if the Panchayat permits
85. Within the purview of
Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as
1 point
a) Includes a river but not a water course
b) Includes a water course but not a river
c) Includes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
d)
Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
86. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the
Trade Mark Act 1999, defines the meaning of
1 point
a) License
b) Trade Mark
c) Registration
d)
Cancellation
87. Outraging the modesty of a
woman is punishable under IPC
1 point
a) Section 376 (a)
b) Section 376 (b)
c) Section 354
d)
Section 498
88. Section 463 of Indian
Penal Code deals with the crime of
1 point
a) House breaking
b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
c) Forgery
d)
Forgery with cheating
89. Criminal intimidation is
explained in IPC under
1 point
a) Section 503 to 506
b) Section 509 to 516
c) Section 319 to 329
d) None
of the above
90. Under Section 59 to 60 of
Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means
1 point
a) All statements made before the court by the witness
b) All statement made before the police by the accused
c) All statement of facts which a witness heard to say
d) All of
the above
91. Under the Evidence Act,
'Court includes
1 point
a) All Judges
b) All Magistrates
c) All Arbitrators
d) (a)
and (b)
92. Admissibility of contents
of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions
1 point
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
d) None
of the above
93. Which is not a public
record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act
1 point
a) Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
b) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
c) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
d)
Documents and circulars from University of Delhi
94. Section 67 of Motor
Vehicle Act 1988 provides
1 point
a) Possession of driving license while driving
b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
c) Revoking driving license if drunk driving is detected
d) State
government's power to control the road transport
95. The term 'Tort' is a
1 point
a) Latin Word
b) French Word
c) English word
d)
Italian word
96. In Tort, what is
'vicarious liability?
1 point
a) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
d) None
of the above
97. Under Section 2(1) (f) of
Consumer Protection Act 1986, 'defect' is meant by any fault, imperfection or
shortcomings in -----------------------....in relation to the goods
1 point
a) Quality and Quantity
b) Potency
c) Purity or standard
d) All of
the above
98. Which of the following
falls under the categories of Act of God
1 point
a) Storm and cyclone
b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
c) Lightning and thunder
d) All of
the above
99. Income Tax Act was enacted
in
1 point
a) 1951
b) 1961
c) 1971
d) None
of the above
100. 'Income' is defined under
Section 24 of the Income Tax Act, as
1 point
a) Profits and gains
b) Dividend
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
d) All of
the above
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